This is a curious case. Of the four gospel books, only Mark records this incident. It is also the only incident of an incomplete healing; the only incident when Jesus asks His "patient" if he is healed.
Jesus does heal the man fully at the end. However, why the initial partial healing?
There are 2 explanations for it that are more common.
The first, and more traditional one, was that this man had no faith in the beginning. He did not come to Jesus on his own accord, others brought him to see Jesus. Thus, Jesus, sensing the man's little faith, partially healed him. Upon receiving partial sight, he then believed, and Jesus healed him fully.
The second explanation is this - that it is another parable as an example to the disciples. Although there is no strong proof for this in the passage itself, it does fall into the context of the previous passages. Jesus points out that we were once blind. He gives us partial vision, that we know some things of what God reveals to us. However, we do not see the full glory of God and His full plan until the end.
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